[Jun 11, 2024] 100% Latest Most updated DEA-2TT4 Questions and Answers [Q19-Q42] : Latest Exam Prep : http://certify.vceprep.com

Q19. Refer to the exhibit.

Which associates labels A, B, C, and D with planes within the software-defined infrastructure.
What set of labels is correct?

A = Data plane B = Service plane C = Management plane D = Control plane

A = Control plane B = Management plane C = Service plane D = Data plane

A = Management plane B = Service plane C = Data plane D = Control plane

A = Data plane B = Control plane C = Management plane D= Service plane

Q20. Which solution can be used for automation of a customer environment?

Ansible

CloudWatch

GitHub

OpenStack

Q21. Which Dell EMC product provides a converged infrastructure solution?

XC Series Appliance

VxBlock

VxRail Appliance

XtremIO

Q22. What is true about the Infrastructure as a code function?

Develops and deploys applications using CI/CD tools

Develops and deploys applications using script files

Manually manages and provisions IT resources

Manages and provisions IT resources using script files

Q23. What activity is performed during the service planning phase of the cloud service lifecycle?

Defining Orchestration Workflow

Discovering Service Assets

Developing Service Proposal

Defining Service Offering

Q24. What is a function of a cloud portal?

Updates IT resources database

Replicates container resources in a web portal

Interacts with the orchestration layer

Creates workflows for automated scheduling

Q25. What is a benefit of data archiving?

Increases deduplication ratio and reduces storage costs

Avoids performing data backups frequently

Preserves data for future reference and adherence to regulatory compliance

Moves frequently accessed data to lower-cost archive storage

Q26. DRAG DROP
What is the correct sequence of steps involved in synchronous remote replication?

Q27. Which cloud service model is represented in the exhibit?

Software as a Service

Infrastructure as a Service

Platform as a Service

Database as a Service

Q28. What is a benefit of link aggregation?

Saves bandwidth by restricting traffic to a specific potentially congested ISL

Improves performance by combining two or more parallel ISLs into a single physical ISL

Optimizes fabric performance by distributing network traffic across ISL

Improves ISL utilization by increasing the network traffic on a specific ISL

Q29. What is the correct order of the business continuity plan principles?

Q30. What is a benefit of the active-active cluster implementation?

Enhances performance and availability of a service

Lower total cost of ownership for providing services

Improves security of application running on the cluster

Ability to run multiple services on one physical compute system

Q31. What is a common characteristic of organizations that have adopted modern applications to unlock digital business advantage?

They focus on compelling user experiences and responsive designs

They leverage only their internal IT infrastructure to develop and deploy applications

They leverage only the public cloud to develop and deploy applications

They focus on meeting internal users’ demands rather than customers’ expectations

Q32. What is the correct sequence of steps in the service catalog design and implementation process?

Q33. What is a key benefit of using containers?

Eliminates any long-term commitments to a technology stack

Helps speed up software release cycles and improve software quality

Enables services to be delivered in hour or days, not weeks

Provides better probability without requiring code changes

Q34. What happens when a link in a link aggregation group is lost?

All the network traffic is held in the queue until the link is repaired.

All network traffic on that link is redistributed to another link aggregation group.

All the network traffic is resent by the sender after the link is repaired.

All network traffic on that link is redistributed across the remaining links in that group.

Q35. An administrator must design a fault-tolerant IT environment for applications.
Which techniques meet this requirement?

Active/Passive for Compute –
NIC Teaming for Network –
Dual disks for storage

Active/Active for Compute –
Link Aggregation for Network –
Erasure Coding for storage

Active/Passive for Compute –
Spanning for Network –
Dynamic Disk Sparing for storage

Active/Standby for Compute –
Multipathing for Network –
RAID for storage

Q36. What is a possible cause for incurring high capital expenditures for IT, even though resources may remain underutilized for a majority of the time in a traditional data center?

IT resources are configured for peak usage

IT resources are provisioned on demand

IT resources are rented as services

IT resources are provisioned as self-service

Q37. What term refers to businesses that do not have a digital plan, and have limited initiatives or investments related to digital transformation?

Digital Leaders

Digital Adopters

Digital Laggards

Digital Evaluators

Q38. What is used to update information in a configuration management database?

Discovery tool

Capacity management tool

Configuration manager

Performance management tool

Q39. What is a function of service portfolio management?

Ensure compliance to industry standards

Enable capacity and availability management

Perform market research and collect information about competitors

Collect information about cloud services and their constituent elements

Q40. Which mechanism restricts external users from accessing an organization’s internal IT resources while still allowing the organization’s application server to access internal IT resources?

Demilitarized zones

Virtual private network

Intrusion detection

Digital signatures

Q41. Which product is a single-instance, multitenant integration platform as a service that provides a unified online development and management environment?

MyService 360

ViPR SRM

Data Protection Advisor

Dell Boomi

Q42. What is a service contract?

Agreement between provider and consumer that states the terms of service usage

Agreement between provider and supplier that describes the service template specifics

Agreement between provider and consumer that lists the conditions for greenfield service deployment

Agreement between provider and supplier that states the terms and conditions of a balanced scorecard